Deal 1: East Deals, E-W Vul.
-- | J876 |
Scores:
6:10
5:5
7:3
After Easts 1 and West's 1, East might choose to ignore the spades (due to his flat shape and poor spades). West could just sign-off in 4, but if he uses new minor and finds a heart fit, he might then self-splinter (if possible) in spades. Something like: 1-1-1NT-2-2-3. East's hand is now tremendous; he could use RKC (even if West can show 2 with and a void, East should be content to stop in 6--as many pairs might stop in game). If East rebids 1, it is harder to reach this excellent slam (I'd guess it to be about 90%).
Deal 2: West Deals, E-W Vul.
AK1095 | 63 |
Scores:
6: 10
5: 6
1: 3
If West starts with 2, it rates to go:2-2-2-2NT-3. If East raises to 4, West might pass. If East bids 4, that should be a control-bid raise (too late for diamonds)--but it isn't clear he is worth it. If he does bid 4, West will RKC into the great slam. If West starts with 1, well ... you see the score listed.
Deal 3: West deals, N-S Vul.
Q4 | A82 |
Scores:
7NT: 10
7: 9
7: 8
6NT: 6
6: 5
6:4
Games: 1
Over East's 2 (assuming 2NT tops out at 21), West doesn't have enough for 3. Assuming he waits with 2, does he have a way to show minors (maybe 3) after the 2NT rebid? If so, East would/should show clubs. West maybe uses 5 next as Exclusion RKC? Not an easy one!
Deal 4: East Deals, Nobody Vul.
KQ93 | AJ2 K984 AK3 Q65 |
Scores:
6NT: 10
6: 9
6: 8
5NT: 5
4: 4
5: 3
After East's 1NT, it is a matter of methods. How does West show 5 clubs and 4 spades? If he does, East has a beautiful hand fora club slam and likely he will take over at some point with a keycard ask. Knowing everything is present except for 1 keycard, perhaps he can take a stab at 6NT.