This deal is from the same Common Game set as last month. This was the layout:

Vul:E-W Dlr: South	97 10 AKJ1076 QJ74
J653 987 52 K1032		Q104 KQJ64 Q98 85
	AK82 A532 43 A96

South opens 1NT. What should North respond? At IMPs, maybe it is right to pursue a contract of 5 (maybe even 6) of a minor. Perhaps start with a transfer to diamonds, or some gadget to show the heart shortness.

However, at matchpoints, I believe it is practical to just raise to 3NT. For one, notrump scores/pays better. Also, it doesn't help the defense. After 1N-3N, West is unlikely to find the killing heart lead. He would lead a black suit and now declarer is in great shape.

The interesting part of this deal is the diamond suit. Let's say declarer wins a black-suit lead in hand an plays a diamond. He would take a first-round finesse, hoping to maintain communication with the dummy. East wins the Q and no matter what he returns, declarer has at least 9 (more if the opening lead was a club) tricks.

However, what if East is ready for the diamond play and smoothly ducks his Q? Could anyone find such a play? I think so. If declarer had xxx in diamonds, he would be unlikely to play this way. So, the first-round finesse smells like xx. When East plays low, without a care in the world, wouldn't you assume West has the Q. Declarer would likely come back to his hand and take another diamond finesse (guarding against 4-1). Now, the finesse loses and East returns the K. Regardless of which black-suit was led at trick one, the defense is now in control and sets 3NT in spectacular fashion.