Responder's Second-Round Two-level Cuebid

Just the title alone can cause brain freeze. Yet, this is a quite common occurrence which can greatly improve your bidding. Let's see if we can figure out what this topic is all about. Here is a word-by-word breakdown...

Responder's -- That would be the partner of the opening bidder

Second-Round -- Not the responder's first call, but his second-round action

Two-Level -- On the 2-level (duh!)

Cuebid -- A bid in the opponent's suit

How about some examples? In each auction below, South's second bid fits the subject of this article:

A)

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	Pass	1
1	Pass	Pass	2

B)

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	1	Double
Pass	1NT	Pass	2

C)

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	Pass	1
1	1	Pass	2

D)

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	1	Double
Pass	2	Pass	2

What is South showing? Why is he making such a bid? We will get to that in a moment, but first let me differentiate the above auctions from the more common:

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	1	2

This is a different animal. This is a first-round cuebid by responder. It has a very specific meaning. It shows (guarantees) support for opener. (After a 1 opening, usually 5+ card support. After a 1 opening, usually 4+ card support. After a 1 or 1 opening, at least 3-card support.) It shows at least 10 HCP. It is not forcing to game, but at least invitational.

Do not mix up that first-round cuebid raise with the 4 auctions A-B-C-D above. The cuebid on neither A, B, C nor D guarantees support for opener. Let's look at each of those 4 auctions and see what kind of a hand responder would have and why he would cuebid.

A)

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	Pass	1
1	Pass	Pass	??

Suppose that you (South) hold the following hand:

2
AQ8765
A32
A32

Your partner opens 1. You know your side has at least a game, maybe a slam. For now, you respond 1. This is met with a 1 overcall. Your partner passes, and it comes back to you. Now what? A double would not be penalty. It would show "cards." However, such doubles can be left in (and your partner, likely with 4 spades, might indeed choose to pass). What about other possibilities? 3 would be only invitational. 4 would just be a wild, unnecessary guess (picture partner with, say, KJ65 2 KQ76 K876).

What you want to do is tell partner: "I have a good hand. I am not sure where we belong. Please talk to me some more."

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	Pass	1
1	Pass	Pass	2

The 2 cuebid here says exactly that. It says nothing about spades. It says nothing about your hearts (you might have only 4 of them). You might or might not have support for your partner. Consider another possible hand you might have for the 2 bid in the auction shown:

A
AK76
AQ765
432

You plan to next raise diamonds, forcing! Why is it forcing? Because to invite, you could have simply jumped to 3 from 1 without cuebidding first.

B)

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	1	Double
Pass	1NT	Pass	??

Suppose that you (South) hold the following hand:

AQ76
5
AQ32
AK32.

Your partner opens 1. You know your side has at least a game, maybe a slam. They overcall 1. You start with a Responder's double for takeout negative double (the first priority is to look for a 4-4 spade fit). Partner rebids 1NT as shown above. Now what? You could give up on slam and simply raise to 3NT. Partner could have an unattractive

J3
KQ76
K654
QJ4

Opposite such a minimum, slam is no bargain. On the other hand, partner could hold:

K2
AJ4
K10876
Q74
Opposite that hand, you belong in 7.

Partner could also have something in between, such as:

102
AQJ3
KJ54
Q54

Opposite that hand, 6 is where you belong.

Should responder just guess on round 2? Should he use Blackwood? Well, he can't really use Blackwood, because 4NT would be a quantitative (invitational) raise. Yes, 4 (Gerber) would ask for aces, but what's the point? Knowing how many aces partner has won't tell you where you belong. What you want to do is hear more from partner. Use the 2 cuebid to create a force. With a 5-card diamond suit, partner could now repeat them. With 3-card spade support, he could bid 2. With nothing good to say, he can bid 2NT (over which you can bid 3 forcing and obtain even more input).

Must you have a slam try for your 2 bid in this auction? No. Here is another hand which would bid 2 in auction B:

AKQ2
A1076
J1084
2

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	1	Double
Pass	1NT	Pass	??

You could just blast to 3NT, but what if partner held something like:

J54
KJ2
AQ965
Q5?

C)

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	Pass	1
1	1	Pass	??

Suppose that you (South) hold the following hand:

AQ76
52
AKQ102
K2.

Your partner opens 1. You respond 1 (no need to bypass such a good suit when you have enough to introduce spades later). Atfer LHO overcalls 1, your partner bids 1. You belong in only a spade game opposite,say:

KJ106
Q876
3
AQJ4

But, you could easily belong in 6 or 7 opposite the right hand. Now what? Jumping to 3 (a common error by intermediate-level players) is unacceptable. Why? Because partner can Pass! Jumps in previously bid suits are only invitational. You could jump to game in spades, but partner will never play you for this much. Best is to force with a cuebid of 2.

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	Pass	1
1	1	Pass	2

This says nothing about hearts. It doesn't promise spade support yet. You might have had a big hand with diamonds and delayed club support. You might be fishing for 3NT with a hand such as:

AQ
765
AKQ65
654.

With that hand you would also produce a 2 cuebid.

All partner knows is that you have a good hand. With hearts stopped, he will likely bid notrump. With the hand I just showed you, you would raise to 3NT. With the original AQ76 52 AKQ102 K2, you would bid 3 next. That would show a Abbreviation for Game Forcing GF spade raise with slam interest. How would partner know? With less, you wouldn't have cuebid first. Or, you could have jumped to 4 without real slam interest. This cuebid and then raise shows a hand like you have. Subsequent bids on the 4-level would be control-bids. You could now find out if partner has a heart control.

Note: In this particular situation, the cuebid overlaps "4th Suit GF."

D)

West	North (opener)	East	South (RESPONDER)
				1	1	Double
Pass	2	Pass	??

Suppose that you (South) hold the following hand:

86
AQJ2
KQ32
Q42.

Your partner opens 1. After a 1 overcall, you made a normal negative double. Partner's rebid is 2. Now what?

You guessed it. You cuebid their suit. As usual, it says nothing about their suit (spades). You might have or might not have a high card in their suit. You would make the same 2 bid with:

A6
AQJ2
KQ32
Q42.

It neither shows nor denies support for diamonds or clubs. It is just "forcing." If partner has their suit stopped, he will likely bid 2NT next. If he is 5-5 in the minors, you will probably hear 3. If he has 3-card heart "support," he can bid 2. Your next move, will depend on opener's third call.

Is this second-round two-level cuebid forcing to game? Probably it should be. When the responder knows the opener is minimum, he could guess to cuebid and then bailout if he doesn't like what he hears from opener. But, for simplicity's sake, I recommend playing the cuebid discussed here as forcing to game. It is not alertable (generally, no cuebids, regardless of meaning, are alertable).

Just to review, responder's second-round two-level cuebid says nothing about the suit cuebid, and neither shows nor denies support for opener. It is quite similar to a 3-level bid of the opponents' suit, typically looking for a stopper Western cuebid (which is made on the 3 level).