A Jacoby Transfer shows 5+ cards in the major. 1NT-2 or 2NT-3 shows 5+ hearts and could be 0 points. 1NT-2 or 2NT-3 shows 5+ spades and 0+ points. I would remove 1NT (via a transfer) to 2 with:
763
108764
7654
2.
In this article, I recommend always transferring with a 5-card major.
After you transfer, a new suit bid is natural (4+ cards) and forcing to Game. If you transfer and then bid notrump, you are usually balanced (5-3-3-2) and offering partner a choice. 1NT-2-2-2NT offers him a choice of 4 contracts (2NT, 3, 3NT or 4). If you transfer to 2 and raise to 3, it is invitational to game with 6+ trumps (1NT-2-2-3).
What about Texas? 1NT-4 shows 6+ and opener must (100%) bid 4. Similarly, 1NT-4 shows 6+ spades. These bids are usually used to sign-off in game.
That means that 1NT-2-2-4 should have a special meaning. It can't be a pure signoff, because responder would have used Texas. So, this is a slam invitation (usually with no shortness). With shortness, you can transfer and then Splinter (1NT-2-2-4 -- to show 6+, 0-1 and slam interest).
Jacoby followed by 4NT should be Quantitative (invitational, typically 5-3-3-2). Texas followed by 4NT should be RKC.
After partner opens 1NT, what is your plan with:
J76543
7652
3
86
Pass
2 and then over 2 bid 2
2 and then pass
Other
2. Not enough to start with Stayman (1NT-2-2-2 would be invitational). Don't pass and make partner suffer in 1NT.
After partner opens 1NT, what is your plan with:
543
AQ107652
J32
--
2 and then Pass
2 and then 3
2 and then 4
2 and then 4
4 and then pass
Other
4. You have way too much to play in only a partscore. Yet, not enough to invite slam. Transferring to 2 and then going to game (directly or via a splinter of 4) would show at least a king more.
Note: This answer presumes you know and use Texas Transfers. If not, then your only way to make sure of reaching 4 would be Jacoby and then 4.
Your partner opens 1NT. What is your plan with:
KJ8765
2
K103
1092
Pass
2 and then pass.
2 and then 3
4
Other
2 and then 3. Too much to pass 2 but not enough to insist on game. This sequence is invitational with 6+ spades.
Your partner opens 1NT. What is your plan with:
Q10765
KJ
KJ
J762
2 and then 2NT
2 and then 3
2 and then 3NT
Other
2 and then 3NT. Technically, you could transfer and then bid 3 to show 5+, 4+ and a GF. But, with all your points in the red suits, this feels like a misleading description. Conceivably, with those chunky red-suit doubletons, you could start with Stayman (planning to play in spades only if partner has 4 of them). Or, you could ignore the spades altogether and raise 1NT to 3NT. Still, this feels like the best compromise. Surely, you would want partner to be in 4 opposite, say,
AKJ
Q2
Q10765
A103.
Your partner opens 1NT. What is your plan with:
KQ8765
2
K103
A92
2 and then 4
2 and then 4
4 and then Pass
Other
2 then 4. Too much to just Texas to 4. Picture partner with, say,
A92
J76
AQJ65
K3.
Jacoby and then the Splinter will alert him to the fact that his cards outside of hearts are good for slam. You don't have enough to insist on slam (RKC and then bid 6 with enough keycards). Picture partner with:
94
AKQ3
Q764
KJ5.
Note: If you don't think your partner would know 4 is a splinter bid, don't try this fancy route.
After partner opens 1NT, what is your plan with:
KJ10954
KQJ
AQJ
9
2 followed by 4
2 followed by 4
2 followed by 4NT
4 and then pass
4 and then bid 4NT
4 followed by 4NT (RKC). This hand is good enough to use Blackwood after a 1NT opener. 2 followed by 4NT would be quantitative.
If not playing RKC, I suppose you could use plain old Gerber after 1NT to ask for aces.
Partner opens 2NT, what is your plan with:
8
KQ765
KQJ102
98
3 followed by 3NT
3 followed by 4
3 followed by 4NT
Other
3 followed by 4. You have a hand that wants to go to slam, and all of your transfer tools still work. This shows hearts and diamonds, and on the next round, unless partner takes over, you'll make some sort of slam-going bid.