Jacoby/Texas and follow-up

A Jacoby Transfer shows 5+ cards in the major. 1NT-2♠ or 2NT-3♠ shows 5+ hearts and could be 0 points. 1NT-2♠ or 2NT-3♠ shows 5+ spades and 0+ points. I would remove 1NT (via a transfer) to 2♠ with:

♠ 763  
♥ 108764  
♦ 7654  
♣ 2.

In this article, I recommend always transferring with a 5-card major.

After you transfer, a new suit bid is natural (4+ cards) and forcing to Game. If you transfer and then bid notrump, you are usually balanced (5-3-3-2) and offering partner a choice. 1NT-2♠-2♠-2NT offers him a choice of 4 contracts (2NT, 3♠, 3NT or 4♠). If you transfer to 2 and raise to 3, it is invitational to game with 6+ trumps (1NT-2♠-2♠-3♠).

What about Texas? 1NT-4♠ shows 6+♠ and opener must (100%) bid 4♠. Similarly, 1NT-4♠ shows 6+ spades. These bids are usually used to sign-off in game.

That means that 1NT-2♠-2♠-4♠ should have a special meaning. It can't be a pure signoff, because responder would have used Texas. So, this is a slam invitation (usually with no shortness). With shortness, you can transfer and then Splinter (1NT-2♠-2♠-4♠ -- to show 6+♠, 0-1♠ and slam interest).

Jacoby followed by 4NT should be Quantitative (invitational, typically 5-3-3-2). Texas followed by 4NT should be RKC.

  • After partner opens 1NT, what is your plan with:

    ♠ J76543  
    ♥ 7652  
    ♦ 3  
    ♣ 86
     

    Choose One:
    1. -

    Pass

    2. -

    2♠ and then over 2♠ bid 2♠

    3. -

    2♠ and then pass

    4. -

    Other

    Answer: 3

    2♠. Not enough to start with Stayman (1NT-2♠-2♠-2♠ would be invitational). Don't pass and make partner suffer in 1NT.

    Your result so far:
    Next

  • After partner opens 1NT, what is your plan with:

    ♠ 543  
    ♥ AQ107652 
    ♦ J32 
    ♣ --
     

    Choose One:
    1. -

    2♠ and then Pass

    2. -

    2♠ and then 3♠

    3. -

    2♠ and then 4♠

    4. -

    2♠ and then 4♠

    5. -

    4♠ and then pass

    6. -

    Other

    Answer: 5

    4♠. You have way too much to play in only a partscore. Yet, not enough to invite slam. Transferring to 2♠ and then going to game (directly or via a splinter of 4♠) would show at least a king more.
    Note: This answer presumes you know and use Texas Transfers. If not, then your only way to make sure of reaching 4♠ would be Jacoby and then 4♠.

    Your result so far:
    Next

  • Your partner opens 1NT. What is your plan with:

    ♠ KJ8765  
    ♥ 2  
    ♦ K103  
    ♣ 1092
     

    Choose One:
    1. -

    Pass

    2. -

    2♠ and then pass.

    3. -

    2♠ and then 3♠

    4. -

    4♠

    5. -

    Other

    Answer: 3

    2♠ and then 3♠. Too much to pass 2♠ but not enough to insist on game. This sequence is invitational with 6+ spades.

    Your result so far:
    Next

  • Your partner opens 1NT. What is your plan with:

    ♠ Q10765  
    ♥ KJ 
    ♦ KJ 
    ♣ J762
     

    Choose One:
    1. -

    2♠ and then 2NT

    2. -

    2♠ and then 3♠

    3. -

    2♠ and then 3NT

    4. -

    Other

    Answer: 3

    2♠ and then 3NT. Technically, you could transfer and then bid 3♠ to show 5+♠, 4+♠ and a GF. But, with all your points in the red suits, this feels like a misleading description. Conceivably, with those chunky red-suit doubletons, you could start with Stayman (planning to play in spades only if partner has 4 of them). Or, you could ignore the spades altogether and raise 1NT to 3NT. Still, this feels like the best compromise. Surely, you would want partner to be in 4♠ opposite, say,

    ♠ AKJ  
    ♥ Q2  
    ♦ Q10765  
    ♣ A103.
     

    Your result so far:
    Next

  • Your partner opens 1NT. What is your plan with:

    ♠ KQ8765  
    ♥ 2  
    ♦ K103  
    ♣ A92
     

    Choose One:
    1. -

    2♠ and then 4♠

    2. -

    2♠ and then 4♠

    3. -

    4♠ and then Pass

    4. -

    Other

    Answer: 2

    2♠ then 4♠. Too much to just Texas to 4♠. Picture partner with, say,

    ♠ A92  
    ♥ J76  
    ♦ AQJ65  
    ♣ K3.

    Jacoby and then the Splinter will alert him to the fact that his cards outside of hearts are good for slam. You don't have enough to insist on slam (RKC and then bid 6 with enough keycards). Picture partner with:

    ♠ 94  
    ♥ AKQ3  
    ♦ Q764  
    ♣ KJ5.

    Note: If you don't think your partner would know 4♠ is a splinter bid, don't try this fancy route.

    Your result so far:
    Next

  • After partner opens 1NT, what is your plan with: 

    ♠ KJ10954  
    ♥ KQJ 
    ♦ AQJ 
    ♣ 9
     

    Choose One:
    1. -

    2♠ followed by 4♠

    2. -

    2♠ followed by 4♠

    3. -

    2♠ followed by 4NT

    4. -

    4♠ and then pass

    5. -

    4♠ and then bid 4NT

    Answer: 5

    4♠ followed by 4NT (RKC). This hand is good enough to use Blackwood after a 1NT opener. 2♠ followed by 4NT would be quantitative. 
    If not playing RKC, I suppose you could use plain old Gerber after 1NT to ask for aces.

    Your result so far:
    Next

  • Partner opens 2NT, what is your plan with: 

    ♠ 8  
    ♥ KQ765  
    ♦ KQJ102  
    ♣ 98
     

    Choose One:
    1. -

    3♠ followed by 3NT

    2. -

    3♠ followed by 4♠

    3. -

    3♠ followed by 4NT

    4. -

    Other

    Answer: 2

    3♠ followed by 4♠. You have a hand that wants to go to slam, and all of your transfer tools still work. This shows hearts and diamonds, and on the next round, unless partner takes over, you'll make some sort of slam-going bid. 

    Your result so far:
    Next