Set 17 Results

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Board 1, East Deals, Both vulnerable             

A K 5 Q J 10 7 4 J 6 5 2 5

8 6 A K 8 5 3 3 A Q 9 6 3

Scores for Board 1:

6: 10
5: 6 (same score for 4, of course)
3: 2
3NT: 1

If the defense doesn't lead trumps, declarer can easily score this slam by ruffing 3 diamonds and a spade in East's hand. Even with a trump lead, the slam is a strong favorite to make (easy if clubs come in with some ruffs). 

After East opens 1, West  has a good hand for a splinter-bid in clubs. After West's 4, East can't insist on slam--he could be off the first 2 spade tricks. East should control-bid 4 to say that he has both slam interest, and diamonds under control (first or second round). With good trumps and spades controlled, West should now use Blackwood (preferably RKC) to reach 6.

Board 2,  East deals, Both vulnerable

K 10 8 5 4 A Q 10 3 A 5 4 2

Q J K 9 7 4 K J 10 A K 10 3

Scores for Board 2:

6NT:10
6:9
6:8

5NT:5
4:4
4:3

Because of the J and 10, notrump is best and spades second-best. If the 10 were lower, then 6 would be best. Will anyone diagnose this in the bidding--I doubt it. After East's 1NT, West is likely to start with Stayman and the 4-4 heart fit will be uncovered. After 1N-2-2 it is a question of methods. How does West either drive to slam (what is Blackwood?) or make a splinter try for slam (what is 4?). Even if you are upset about only 8 points for reaching 6, be thankful that you've discussed with your partner follow-ups to Stayman.

Board 3, East deals, Nobody vulnerable

A 3 9 8 2 K J 10 5 10 8 7 5

K 6 4 Q J 7 3 A Q 8 6 4 A

Scores for Board 3:

5: 10

4: 7

2NT: 6
3NT: 5

4: 2

Who bids 5-of-a-minor these days? This was the time for it, as 3NT is shaky on a black-suit lead. Yes, 5

could fail on a heart ruff or with 3 heart losers, but it is clearly the best contract. Some Easts might open 1NT to avoid reversing (yes, this is legal, especially when the singleton is an ace). If East opens 1, West would like to make a standard raise to 2, but most experienced pairs use Inverted minors. West is not strong enough for 2, so would have to respond 1NT. East can now reverse (a bare minimum for this action) to 2, after which the partnership must know its agreements. Would 3 by West be forcing? West could bid 2 (the suit he can't have) to show a good hand. East can now bid 3 to almost complete the picture. So, maybe this auction will be produced:  1-1N-2-2-3-5-P.  Maybe not. :)

Board 4, East deals, Nobody vul, North bids 3

A Q 4 A 7 J 5 K J 8 7 6 2

10 7 6 3 K Q J 7 6 A 2 A 4

Scores:

6: 10
6: 8
5: 7
5: 5
3NT: 4
4NT: 3
7: 3
7: 2

You didn't expect to bid 4 hands without any interference, did you? With expected bad breaks, (North rating to hold 7 diamonds), maybe slam isn't great, but I wouldn't mind playing 6.  After a diamond lead, you'd draw trump (hoping they aren't 5-1) and then play A, and a club to the ... -- you have to guess if you should play the preemptor for a singleton or not. Anyway, you only have to bid here. After: 1-P-2-3, what should East do? Probably Pass, and then what should West do? Ugh!  This is why people preempt.  As to why I don't always complete the recommended auction: Some deals have no obvious answer--that's just the way it is.
 

***Full Book by Larry Cohen with Bidding Practice and results/analysis.***